Head coverings and Sexual
Identity; 1 Cor 11:3-8
In the ancient world in both
This is a problem basic, but
the basic issue is the question is whether Paul is talking about hair or head
covering. Is he primarily addressing men or is he addressing women? We feel he
is primarily addressing men and is addressing the problem with women only secondarily.
The thrust here is on the role of the man in public worship and his honouring
the authorities over him. So is he talking about hair or is he talking about a
physical head covering such as a veil or a hat or some other sort of head
covering, a shawl or something of that sort? Once we answer that question we
have to answer the question as to whether it is cultural or universal. Is Paul
addressing something that is just unique to the Corinthian culture, or is he
addressing something that has universal application? If it has universal
application throughout all cultures in all times, then how do we apply it in
the 21st century?
At first glance this passage
seems to suggest that women should wear a physical head covering when praying
or prophesying in a local church assembly, and that men
should not. This, of course, raises the question about cultural relativity.
Apparently when Paul originally came to
The question was: Should a
man or a woman prophesy, AKATALUPTOS [a)kataluptoj], translated “uncovered,” and should a man pray or
prophesy covered? Paul has to answer this question within their particular
cultural context in such a way that he can lay down
the universal principles, and without stating a specific course of action that
would then be taken to apply cross-culturally. He can’t be too specific because
then he would end up with some superficial legalism, and on the other hand he
has to clearly provide instruction so that they can apply the principles to
their specific situation.
We need to look historically
at the issue of women and veils in the ancient world. We can go back to about
1000 BC and see that in the Assyrian laws that governed the Assyrian empire
women were to wear veils, and the veil signified ownership and proprietary
rights over a woman. Either her father owned her or her husband owned her but
the woman wore a veil and it signified that she was owned by a male. If she didn’t wear a veil that would signify independence and
probably a prostitute. But the Assyrian laws were dated 1000 years BC and that is
too early to have application in the New Testament era. In the other ext6reme
we have the Islamic custom. This, too, would be irrelevant because Islam didn’t
come along until the 7th century, a little late for our time period.
In the classical Greek period (5th century BC) we see from
an examination of the art evidence there that there was an absence of head
coverings. So the conclusion is that there is a distinction between the way
European women dressed and oriental women dressed. It is interesting that in
Men generally had distinct
short hair styles. But there was apparently a problem with men who wanted to
dress like women and women who wanted to dress like men. One Hellenistic Jew
who wrote about 30-40 BC advised parents: “Do not let locks grow on his head,
break not his crown, nor make cross-knots. Long hair is not fit for men but for
voluptuous women, because many rage for intercourse with a man.” A couple of
things we can observe from that quote is that there is
a distinct hair style difference between men and women. Men were not to wear
hair styles that were considered to be feminine. Furthermore, there seems to be
a certain style of hair that women has that would indicate that they were a
prostitute and looking for a man. Philo also has an interesting quote at this
time and he was criticising the effeminacy of men and their hair styles. He
wrote about the provocative way that the men curled and dressed their hair. So
the fact that there were gender-bending hair styles at that time causing a
blurring of distinction between men and women in the society was something that
was a problem that many saw in that society.
A lot of material exists on
Jewish custom from the first century BC to the 6th century AD, and there
are really two sets of customs. There is one set of customs that applied to
Palestinian Jews and another that applied to the more Hellenised Jews who were
out in the Greek empire and who tended to follow the Greeks, whereas the Jewish
women in
One of the garments used was
called a HIMATION which is a long rectangular mantle that draped over
the body with the ends over the arm of the wearer; something like a shawl. This
has been identified by one as the garment that Jesus referred to in Matthew 5
in his remark about the Pharisees and their broad phylacteries and the fringes,
the tassels on their prayer shawls. Jesus’ criticism of the Pharisees was that
they enlarged the borders of their garments and added tassels in order to
impress men with their spirituality. That prayer shawl garment was called a tallith in the Talmud. Even at the time
of Jesus the tallith was worn over
the head of a Jewish adult male when he prayed, and it was placed over a body
in the grace, the purpose being that a purpose might appear to be white before
God. It probably had its origin in Zechariah chapter three when Joshua the high
priest was given a new robe that symbolizes his justification.
It would appear, then, that
the issue isn’t head covering per se,
but hair style. One of the things we will see is that if Paul is saying that
this is a physical head covering then verse 4 would read: “Every man praying or
prophesying having a tallith on his head dishonours his authority.” That would
have implications for the synagogue. If Paul went into the synagogue and the
custom was for men to pray with the prayer shawl over their head and he said
that dishonours God, then he could not pray in the synagogue. That would create
a whole controversy in the synagogue and that is not something we read about in
the New testament. Furthermore, going back into the
Old Testament, there are passages that describe the turban that the high priest
wore when he went into the presence of God. So there would be a reversal of
this whole system and Paul would be critical of Jewish practices. In fact, he
would be saying that Jewish practices for the male are no longer applicable but
since in
We have to investigate two keys
words in this passage. The first word is AKATAKALUPTOS [a)katakaluptoj]. The word begins with an a which is a negative like the English “un” – uncovered. KATAKALUPTOS was the positive word for being covered. After the a (alphaprivitive) is the
prefix KATA and then the root word KALUPTOS, and this is the same root that we have for “revelation,”
to reveal something. The second word that is used is PERBOLAION [peribalaion] which refers top a shawl, a wrapping or a veil.
1 Corinthians
There are two different words
used for covering in this passage. This is a real problem. Up to this point the
word for covering is KATAKALUPTOS, but when we get to verse 15 it is the word PERIBALION which
means a shawl, a wrapping or a veil. So verse 15 suggests that if a woman has
long hair it is that hair that is given to her instead of a shawl or a veil or
a wrapping. So that seems to suggest that the passage is not talking about a
physical veil, shawl or hat, but the covering has to do with the hair itself.
So now we have to do a word
study on KATAKALUPTOS and its positive form KATAKALUPTA which is generally
translated “uncovered” or “covered.” We need to look at some examples in the
Old Testament. Ezekiel 44:18-20 NASB “Linen turbans shall be on
their heads and linen undergarments shall be on their loins; they shall not
gird themselves with {anything which makes them} sweat.
Another reference has to do
with regulations in the Mosaic law related to the
identification of a leper: Leviticus 13:45 NASB “As for the
leper who has the infection, his clothes shall be torn, and the hair of his
head shall be uncovered [AKATAKALUPTO], and he shall cover his mustache
and cry, ‘Unclean! Unclean!’” If KATAKALUPTO
means to trim the hair then its negative would be to leave the hair untrimmed,
to leave it growing wild and shaggy. So the idea here from AKATAKALUPTOS [LXX] is that the
way you would see him coming through the streets is that he has a sort of wild,
unruly dishevelled hair, and he would have his hand over his mouth and cry out.
The Hebrew word that is translated “uncovered” is the word parua, and it means to be uncut
or to let the hair grow long. So this word AKATAKALUPTOS doesn’t mean simply to be uncovered as if you don’t
have a hat or a veil on, but it has the idea of growing the hair long in almost
an unkempt or dishevelled way, to let the hair down.
This also applied to a woman
who was caught in adultery. Numbers 5:18 NASB “The priest shall then
have the woman stand before the LORD and let {the hair of} the woman’s head go loose, and
place the grain offering of memorial in her hands, which is the grain offering
of jealousy, and in the hand of the priest is to be the water of bitterness
that brings a curse.” The word translated “go loose” is the word APAKALUPTA, for
revelation. Here it is used for letting the hair down, and it is from that same
KALUPTO root as KATAKALUPTOS and AKATAKALUPTOS. So the woman who is accused of adultery is signified
by letting here hair down is this sort of dishevelled way. So in the New
Testament era when Jews were forbidden to exercise any kind of capital punishment
for adultery, and especially the Hellenised Jews who were outside the land, the
way they indicated a woman who was accused of adultery was that she wore her
hair loose and down. If she was guilty they would shave her head, and that is
what Paul is going to indicate here.
With all of this background
it perhaps gives us some kind of a basis for understanding the text as we get
into it. The question is: Should women be allowed to let their hair down in
church? In answering, Paul doesn’t go to culture. This is so important because
the feminists say that this was all culturally determined. Paul starts with an
eternal absolute in verse 3: “But I want you to understand that Christ is the
head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of
Christ.” There are role distinctions and authority distinctions in the home, that God designed men with a certain kind of soul to
function in a certain way in relationship to the dominion mandate of Genesis
1:26-28, and He designed women with a different soul, and how they relate to
one another in society must be related functionally to God’s original intent.
So we come to the application:
1 Corinthians 11:4 NASB “Every man who has {something} on his head
while praying or prophesying disgraces his head.” In the Greek it reads: “Every
man [while] praying or prophesying,” and there we have two participles that are
present active indicative participles (the first is a present middle passive,
but it is a deponent verb so it has an active meaning). Since they are anarthrous
they should be taken as participles of time. Then it has the phrase, kata kefalhj
e)xwn, “having according to his head.” It doesn’t say
having what according to his head. There is a problem, there is something left
out, and that is why in most versions it says having “something” on his head,
and that something is in italics. In the Greek that word is left out. Then the
word KATAISCHUNAI [kataisxunai], “shamed, embarrasses or disgraces” his head. That second word “head”
is the concept of authority. So the man is told that if he prays or prophesies
in a certain way it is a disgrace to the authority that God set over him. We
know from verse three that the authority that is set over man is Jesus Christ.
The two options that we have
seen so far is either wearing his hair a certain way, or wearing a hat or shawl
or some kind of physical covering. Option one would read: “Every man who has
long hair [or hair worn in a feminine fashion] while praying or prophesying,
disgraces his head [the authority over him].” The other view would translate
it: “Every man who has a veil or a hat on his head while praying or prophesying
would disgrace his head.” As has already been pointed out the second option
would have serious consequences for Jewish custom. We don’t think that he is
saying that. This would go back to Exodus 28:36-40 where we have the
description of the head gear of the high priest: NASB “You shall
also make a plate of pure gold and shall engrave on it, like the engravings of
a seal, ‘Holy to the LORD.’
So the best option,
understanding the word study, the culture and the relationship to
1 Corinthians 11:5 NASB
“But every woman who has her head uncovered [hair down] while praying or
prophesying disgraces her head, for she is one and the same as the woman whose
head is shaved.” She was wearing her hair in a style that was indicative of her
being an adulteress, a woman of loose morals, or a prostitute. That was the idea.
When we apply this it doesn’t mean that women can’t have their hair down
because it doesn’t mean the same thing today in our culture. We know that a
woman can wear her hair in certain provocative styles that certainly would indicate
that she is a prostitute, that she has rather loose morals. That is the idea. A
woman her has her head uncovered or who wears her hair in a style that is culturally
associated with a woman of loose morals disgraces her authority—the husband who
is the authority over her. “For,” Paul says, “she is one and the same as the
woman whose head is shaved.” She is acting as if she is a prostitute or guilty
of adultery.
1 Corinthians 11:6 NASB
“For if a woman does not cover her head [her hair is down], let her also have
her hair cut off; but if it is disgraceful for a woman to have her hair cut off
or her head shaved, let her cover her head.” In saying “let her also have her
hair cut off” Paul is being sarcastic. If she is going to dress like a prostitute
go all the way. “Let her cover her had,” i.e. let her hair be in an acceptable
style.
Then we go to verse 7 where
he begins to explain the male-female difference in relationship to the image of
God.